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Most Recent Broadcom 250-586 Exam Questions & Answers


Prepare for the Broadcom Endpoint Security Complete Implementation - Technical Specialist exam with our extensive collection of questions and answers. These practice Q&A are updated according to the latest syllabus, providing you with the tools needed to review and test your knowledge.

QA4Exam focus on the latest syllabus and exam objectives, our practice Q&A are designed to help you identify key topics and solidify your understanding. By focusing on the core curriculum, These Questions & Answers helps you cover all the essential topics, ensuring you're well-prepared for every section of the exam. Each question comes with a detailed explanation, offering valuable insights and helping you to learn from your mistakes. Whether you're looking to assess your progress or dive deeper into complex topics, our updated Q&A will provide the support you need to confidently approach the Broadcom 250-586 exam and achieve success.

The questions for 250-586 were last updated on Dec 20, 2024.
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Question No. 1

What permissions does the Security Analyst Role have?

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Correct Answer: C

In Endpoint Security Complete implementations, the Security Analyst Role generally has permissions that focus on monitoring, investigating, and responding to security threats rather than administrative functions like policy creation or device group management. Here's a breakdown of why Option C aligns with best practices:

Search Endpoints: Security Analysts are often tasked with investigating security alerts or anomalies. To support this, they typically need access to endpoint search functionalities to locate specific devices affected by potential threats.

Trigger Dumps: Triggering memory or system dumps on endpoints can be crucial for in-depth forensic analysis. This helps analysts capture a snapshot of the system's state during or after a security incident, aiding in a comprehensive investigation.

Get and Quarantine Files: Security Analysts are often allowed to isolate or quarantine files that are identified as suspicious or malicious. This action helps contain potential threats and prevent the spread of malware or other harmful activities within the network. This permission aligns with their role in mitigating threats as quickly as possible.

Explanation of Why Other Options Are Less Likely:

Option A (Create Policies): Creating policies typically requires higher administrative privileges, such as those assigned to security administrators or endpoint managers, rather than Security Analysts. Analysts primarily focus on threat detection and response rather than policy design.

Option B (Enroll New Sites): Enrolling new sites is typically an administrative task related to infrastructure setup and expansion, which falls outside the responsibilities of a Security Analyst.

Option D (Create Device Groups): Creating and managing device groups is usually within the purview of a system administrator or endpoint administrator role, as this involves configuring the organizational structure of the endpoint management system.

In summary, Option C aligns with the core responsibilities of a Security Analyst focused on threat investigation and response. Their permissions emphasize actions that directly support these objectives, without extending into administrative configuration or setup tasks.


Question No. 2

What is the first step taken when defining the core security/protection requirements in the Assess phase?

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Correct Answer: A

The first step in defining core security and protection requirements during the Assess phase is to start with high-level questions and pain points. This approach helps clarify the customer's key concerns, primary risks, and specific protection needs, providing a foundation to tailor the security solution effectively. By focusing on these high-level issues, the assessment can be aligned with the customer's unique environment and strategic objectives.

SES Complete Implementation Curriculum outlines this initial step as critical for gathering relevant information that shapes the direction of the security solution, ensuring it addresses the customer's main pain points and requirements comprehensively.


Question No. 3

Which EDR feature is used to search for real-time indicators of compromise?

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Correct Answer: B

In Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR), the Endpoint search feature is used to search for real-time indicators of compromise (IoCs) across managed devices. This feature allows security teams to investigate suspicious activities by querying endpoints directly for evidence of threats, helping to detect and respond to potential compromises swiftly.

SES Complete Documentation describes Endpoint search as a crucial tool for threat hunting within EDR, enabling real-time investigation and response to security incidents.


Question No. 4

In which two areas can host groups be used in a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) implementation? (Select two.)

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Correct Answer: B, D

In a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) implementation, host groups can be used within the Firewall and Intrusion Prevention System (IPS). Host groups allow administrators to define sets of IP addresses or domains that can be referenced in firewall and IPS policies, making it easier to apply consistent security controls across designated hosts or networks.

Symantec Endpoint Protection Documentation specifies the usage of host groups to streamline policy management, enabling efficient and organized rule application for network security measures within SEPM's Firewall and IPS configurations.


Question No. 5

What does the Configuration Design section in the SES Complete Solution Design provide?

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Correct Answer: A

The Configuration Design section in the SES Complete Solution Design provides a summary of the features and functions that will be implemented in the deployment. This section outlines the specific elements that make up the security solution, detailing what will be configured to meet the customer's requirements.

Summary of Features and Functions: This section acts as a blueprint, summarizing the specific features (e.g., malware protection, firewall settings, intrusion prevention) and configurations that need to be deployed.

Guidance for Implementation: By listing the features and functions, the Configuration Design serves as a reference for administrators, guiding the deployment and ensuring all necessary components are included.

Ensuring Solution Completeness: The summary helps verify that the solution covers all planned security aspects, reducing the risk of missing critical configurations during deployment.

Explanation of Why Other Options Are Less Likely:

Option B (testing scenarios) is part of the Test Plan, not the Configuration Design.

Option C (solution validation) is conducted after configuration and is typically part of testing.

Option D (base architecture and infrastructure requirements) would be found in the Infrastructure Design section.

Therefore, the Configuration Design section provides a summary of the features and functions to be implemented.


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