Prepare for the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Exam exam with our extensive collection of questions and answers. These practice Q&A are updated according to the latest syllabus, providing you with the tools needed to review and test your knowledge.
QA4Exam focus on the latest syllabus and exam objectives, our practice Q&A are designed to help you identify key topics and solidify your understanding. By focusing on the core curriculum, These Questions & Answers helps you cover all the essential topics, ensuring you're well-prepared for every section of the exam. Each question comes with a detailed explanation, offering valuable insights and helping you to learn from your mistakes. Whether you're looking to assess your progress or dive deeper into complex topics, our updated Q&A will provide the support you need to confidently approach the CompTIA CS0-003 exam and achieve success.
A regulated organization experienced a security breach that exposed a list of customer names with corresponding PH dat
a. Which of the following is the best reason for developing the organization's communication plans?
Developing an organization's communication plans is crucial to ensure that incidents, especially those involving sensitive data like PH (Protected Health) data, are promptly reported to the relevant regulatory agencies. This is essential for compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, which often mandate timely notification of data breaches. Effective communication plans help the organization manage the breach response process, mitigate potential legal penalties, and maintain transparency with regulatory bodies.
A cybersecurity team has witnessed numerous vulnerability events recently that have affected operating systems. The team decides to implement host-based IPS, firewalls, and two-factor authentication. Which of the following
does this most likely describe?
The correct answer is
A) System hardening.
The other options are not the best descriptions of the scenario. A hybrid network architecture (B) is a network design that combines on-premises and cloud-based resources, which may or may not involve system hardening. Continuous authorization is a security approach that monitors and validates the security posture of a system on an ongoing basis, which is different from system hardening. Secure access service edge (D) is a network architecture that delivers cloud-based security services to remote users and devices, which is also different from system hardening.
An analyst is examining events in multiple systems but is having difficulty correlating data points. Which of the following is most likely the issue with the system?
Time synchronization is the process of ensuring that all systems in a network have the same accurate time, which is essential for correlating data points from different sources. If the system has an issue with time synchronization, the analyst may have difficulty matching events that occurred at the same time or in a specific order. Access rights, network segmentation, and invalid playbook are not directly related to the issue of correlating data points. Verified Reference: [CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification Study Guide], page 23
A Chief Information Security Officer has outlined several requirements for a new vulnerability scanning project:
. Must use minimal network bandwidth
. Must use minimal host resources
. Must provide accurate, near real-time updates
. Must not have any stored credentials in configuration on the scanner
Which of the following vulnerability scanning methods should be used to best meet these requirements?
Agent-based vulnerability scanning is a method that uses software agents installed on the target systems to scan for vulnerabilities. This method meets the requirements of the project because it uses minimal network bandwidth and host resources, provides accurate and near real-time updates, and does not require any stored credentials on the scanner. Reference: What Is Vulnerability Scanning? Types, Tools and Best Practices, Section: Types of vulnerability scanning; CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 154.
A SOC analyst observes reconnaissance activity from an IP address. The activity follows a pattern of short bursts toward a low number of targets. An open-source review shows that the IP has a bad reputation. The perimeter firewall logs indicate the inbound traffic was allowed. The destination hosts are high-value assets with EDR agents installed. Which of the following is the best action for the SOC to take to protect against any further activity from the source IP?
Blocking the IP address at the EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) level provides an immediate, targeted response to the detected reconnaissance activity, preventing further interaction with the high-value assets. EDR tools are designed to detect and block malicious IPs across endpoints. According to CompTIA CySA+, this proactive step is effective for isolating and mitigating threats on specific endpoints. While creating SIEM signatures (B) is useful for monitoring, and policies on WAF (C) and NGFWs (D) can provide additional layers of defense, the most immediate protective action is to block at the endpoint level.
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