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Most Recent CompTIA CV0-003 Exam Dumps

 

Prepare for the CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam exam with our extensive collection of questions and answers. These practice Q&A are updated according to the latest syllabus, providing you with the tools needed to review and test your knowledge.

QA4Exam focus on the latest syllabus and exam objectives, our practice Q&A are designed to help you identify key topics and solidify your understanding. By focusing on the core curriculum, These Questions & Answers helps you cover all the essential topics, ensuring you're well-prepared for every section of the exam. Each question comes with a detailed explanation, offering valuable insights and helping you to learn from your mistakes. Whether you're looking to assess your progress or dive deeper into complex topics, our updated Q&A will provide the support you need to confidently approach the CompTIA CV0-003 exam and achieve success.

The questions for CV0-003 were last updated on Feb 21, 2025.
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Question No. 1

A company has a web application that is accessed around the world. An administrator has been notified of performance issues regarding the application. Which of the following will BEST improve performance?

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Correct Answer: C

The correct answer is C. CDN.

A CDN, or content delivery network, is a group of servers spread out over a region or around the world that work together to speed up content delivery on the web. The servers in a CDN temporarily store (or cache) webpage content like images, HTML, JavaScript, and video. They send the cached content to users who load the webpage1.

A CDN can improve the performance of a web application that is accessed around the world by:

Decreasing the distance between where content is stored and where it needs to go. A CDN can serve content from the server that is closest to the user, reducing network latency and bandwidth consumption.

Reducing file sizes to increase load speed. A CDN can employ techniques such as compression, minification, and image optimization to reduce the amount of data that needs to be transferred.

Optimizing server infrastructure to respond to user requests more quickly. A CDN can use hardware and software enhancements such as solid-state hard drives, load balancing, and caching algorithms to improve the efficiency and reliability of the servers12.

IPAM, or IP address management, is a method for planning, tracking, and managing the IP address space used in a network. IPAM does not directly affect the performance of a web application.

SDN, or software-defined networking, is a technology that allows network administrators to dynamically configure and control network resources using software applications. SDN can improve the flexibility and scalability of a network, but it does not necessarily improve the performance of a web application.

VPN, or virtual private network, is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection between a device and a network over the internet. VPN can enhance the privacy and security of a web application, but it does not improve its performance. In fact, VPN may introduce some overhead and latency due to encryption and decryption processes3.


Question No. 2

Which of the following actions should a systems administrator perform during the containment phase of a security incident in the cloud?

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Correct Answer: B

Configuring a firewall rule to block the traffic on the affected instance is what the administrator should perform during the containment phase of a security incident in the cloud. A security incident is an event or situation that affects or may affect the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of cloud resources or data. A security incident response is a process of managing and resolving a security incident using various phases, such as identification, containment, eradication, recovery, etc. The containment phase is where the administrator tries to isolate and prevent the spread or escalation of the security incident. Configuring a firewall rule to block the traffic on the affected instance can help to contain a security incident by cutting off any communication or interaction between the instance and other systems or networks, which may stop any malicious or unauthorized activity or access.


Question No. 3

A security team is conducting an audit of the security group configurations for the Linux servers that are hosted in a public laaS. The team identifies the following rule as a potential

A cloud administrator, who is working remotely, logs in to the cloud management console and modifies the rule to set the source to "My IR" Shortly after deploying the rule, an internal developer receives the following error message when attempting to log in to the server using SSH: Network error: connection timed out. However, the administrator is able to connect successfully to the same server using SSH. Which of the following is the BEST option for both the developer and the administrator to access the

server from their locations?

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Correct Answer: C

The inbound rule that the security team identified as a potential vulnerability is the one that allows SSH access (port 22) from any source (0.0.0.0/0). This means that anyone on the internet can try to connect to the Linux servers using SSH, which poses a risk of unauthorized access or brute-force attacks. The cloud administrator, who is working remotely, logs in to the cloud management console and modifies the rule to set the source to ''My IP''. This means that only the administrator's IP address can connect to the Linux servers using SSH, which improves the security of the servers. However, this also prevents other authorized users, such as the internal developer, from accessing the servers using SSH, as they have different IP addresses than the administrator. Therefore, the administrator needs to modify the rule again to allow more sources for SSH access.

The best option for both the developer and the administrator to access the server from their locations is to modify the inbound rule to allow the company's external IP address as a source. This means that only the IP addresses that belong to the company's network can connect to the Linux servers using SSH, which reduces the attack surface and ensures that only authorized users can access the servers. The company's external IP address can be obtained by using a web service such as [What Is My IP Address?] or [IP Location]. The administrator can then enter this IP address or its CIDR notation in the source field of the inbound rule.


Question No. 4

A systems administrator needs to connect the companys network to a public cloud services provider. Which of the following will BEST ensure encryption in transit for data transfers?

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Correct Answer: B

The answer is A. SAML. SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is a standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between different parties, such as a user and a service provider. In a federated cluster, SAML can be used to enable single sign-on (SSO) for users across multiple clusters or cloud providers. SAML relies on the exchange of XML-based assertions that contain information about the user's identity, attributes, and entitlements. If the users' API access tokens have become invalid, it could be because the SAML assertions have expired, been revoked, or corrupted. The administrator should check the SAML configuration and logs to determine the cause of this issue.

Some possible sources of information about SAML and federated clusters are:

Authenticating | Kubernetes: This page provides an overview of authenticating users in Kubernetes, including using SAML for federated identity.

Authenticating to the Kubernetes API server - Google Cloud: This page explains how to authenticate to the Kubernetes API server on Google Cloud, including using SAML for federated identity with Google Cloud Identity Platform.

Error 403 User not authorized when trying to access Azure Databricks API through Active Directory - Stack Overflow: This page discusses a similar issue of users getting an error when trying to access Azure Databricks API using SAML and Active Directory.


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