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Most Recent Eccouncil 212-89 Exam Dumps

 

Prepare for the Eccouncil EC-Council Certified Incident Handler v3 exam with our extensive collection of questions and answers. These practice Q&A are updated according to the latest syllabus, providing you with the tools needed to review and test your knowledge.

QA4Exam focus on the latest syllabus and exam objectives, our practice Q&A are designed to help you identify key topics and solidify your understanding. By focusing on the core curriculum, These Questions & Answers helps you cover all the essential topics, ensuring you're well-prepared for every section of the exam. Each question comes with a detailed explanation, offering valuable insights and helping you to learn from your mistakes. Whether you're looking to assess your progress or dive deeper into complex topics, our updated Q&A will provide the support you need to confidently approach the Eccouncil 212-89 exam and achieve success.

The questions for 212-89 were last updated on Apr 1, 2025.
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Question No. 1

Darwin is an attacker residing within the organization and is performing network

sniffing by running his system in promiscuous mode. He is capturing and viewing all

the network packets transmitted within the organization. Edwin is an incident handler

in the same organization.

In the above situation, which of the following Nmap commands Edwin must use to

detect Darwin's system that is running in promiscuous mode?

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Correct Answer: C

The GPG18 and Forensic readiness planning (SPF) principles outline various guidelines to enhance an organization's readiness for forensic investigation and response. Principle 5, which suggests that organizations should adopt a scenario-based Forensic Readiness Planning approach that learns from experience gained within the business, emphasizes the importance of being prepared for a wide range of potential incidents by leveraging lessons learned from past experiences. This approach helps in continuously improving forensic readiness and response capabilities by adapting to the evolving threat landscape and organizational changes.


Question No. 2

A US Federal Agency network was the target of a DoS attack that prevented and

impaired the normal authorized functionality of the networks. According to agency's

reporting timeframe guidelines, this incident should be reported within 2 h of

discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing and the agency is unable to

successfully mitigate the activity.

Which incident category of US Federal Agency does this incident belong to?

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Correct Answer: B

In the context of US Federal Agencies, incidents are categorized based on their impact on operations, assets, or individuals. A DoS attack that prevents or impairs the authorized functionality of networks and is still ongoing without successful mitigation efforts typically falls under Category 2 (CAT 2). This category is designated for incidents that have a significant impact, requiring immediate reporting and response. The reporting timeframe of within 2 hours as mentioned aligns with the urgency associated with CAT 2 incidents, emphasizing the need for swift action to address the attack and restore normal operations. Reference: US Federal incident response guidelines and the Incident Handler (ECIH v3) courses outline the categorization of cybersecurity incidents, detailing the response protocols for each category, including the reporting timeframes.


Question No. 3

During the vulnerability assessment phase, the incident responders perform various

steps as below:

1. Run vulnerability scans using tools

2. Identify and prioritize vulnerabilities

3. Examine and evaluate physical security

4. Perform OSINT information gathering to validate the vulnerabilities

5. Apply business and technology context to scanner results

6. Check for misconfigurations and human errors

7. Create a vulnerability scan report

Identify the correct sequence of vulnerability assessment steps performed by the

incident responders.

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Correct Answer: C

The correct sequence of steps performed by incident responders during the vulnerability assessment phase is as follows:

Perform OSINT information gathering to validate the vulnerabilities (4): Initially, Open Source Intelligence (OSINT) is used to gather information about the organization's digital footprint and potential vulnerabilities.

Run vulnerability scans using tools (1): Next, specialized tools are employed to scan the organization's networks and systems for vulnerabilities.

Identify and prioritize vulnerabilities (2): The identified vulnerabilities are then analyzed and prioritized based on their severity and potential impact on the organization.

Examine and evaluate physical security (3): Physical security assessments are also crucial as they can impact the overall security posture and protection of digital assets.

Check for misconfigurations and human errors (6): This step involves looking for misconfigurations in systems and networks, as well as potential human errors that could lead to vulnerabilities.

Apply business and technology context to scanner results (5): The results from the scans are evaluated within the context of the business and its technology environment to accurately assess risks.

Create a vulnerability scan report (7): Finally, a comprehensive report is created, detailing the vulnerabilities, their severity, and recommended mitigation strategies.

This sequence ensures a thorough assessment, prioritizing vulnerabilities that pose the greatest risk and providing actionable insights for mitigation. Reference: ECIH v3 courses and study guides elaborate on the vulnerability assessment process, detailing the steps involved in identifying, evaluating, and addressing security vulnerabilities within an organization's IT infrastructure.


Question No. 4

Which of the following methods help incident responders to reduce the false-positive

alert rates and further provide benefits of focusing on topmost priority issues reducing

potential risk and corporate liabilities?

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Correct Answer: C

Threat correlation is a method used by incident responders to analyze and associate various indicators of compromise (IoCs) and alerts to identify genuine threats. By correlating data from multiple sources and applying intelligence to distinguish between unrelated events and coordinated attack patterns, responders can significantly reduce the rate of false-positive alerts. This enables teams to prioritize their efforts on the most critical and likely threats, thereby reducing potential risks and corporate liabilities. Effective threat correlation involves the use of sophisticated security information and event management (SIEM) systems, threat intelligence platforms, and analytical techniques to identify relationships between seemingly disparate security events and alerts.


Question No. 5

Which of the following tools helps incident handlers to view the file system, retrieve deleted data, perform timeline analysis, web artifacts, etc., during an incident response process?

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Correct Answer: A

Autopsy is a digital forensics platform and graphical interface to The Sleuth Kit and other digital forensics tools. It is used by law enforcement, military, and corporate examiners to investigate what happened on a computer. Autopsy enables incident handlers to view the file system, retrieve deleted data, perform timeline analysis, and analyze web artifacts, among other functionalities. This tool is particularly useful during the incident response process for conducting in-depth investigations into the nature of a security incident, identifying the methods used by attackers, and recovering lost or compromised data.


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