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Most Recent PRMIA 8006 Exam Dumps

 

Prepare for the PRMIA Exam I: Finance Theory, Financial Instruments, Financial Markets – 2015 Edition exam with our extensive collection of questions and answers. These practice Q&A are updated according to the latest syllabus, providing you with the tools needed to review and test your knowledge.

QA4Exam focus on the latest syllabus and exam objectives, our practice Q&A are designed to help you identify key topics and solidify your understanding. By focusing on the core curriculum, These Questions & Answers helps you cover all the essential topics, ensuring you're well-prepared for every section of the exam. Each question comes with a detailed explanation, offering valuable insights and helping you to learn from your mistakes. Whether you're looking to assess your progress or dive deeper into complex topics, our updated Q&A will provide the support you need to confidently approach the PRMIA 8006 exam and achieve success.

The questions for 8006 were last updated on Apr 1, 2025.
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Question No. 1

Suppose the S&P is trading at a level of 1000. Using continuously compounded rates, calculate the futures price for a contract expiring in three months, assuming expected dividends to be 2% and the interest rate for futures funding to be 5% (both rates expressed as continuously compounded rates)

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Correct Answer: C

The futures price of the contract will be the future value of the spot price, calculated at a net rate equal to the cost of funding the futures position, less any dividends or other distributions. Also note that when rates are continuously compounded, Future Value = Present Value x (exp(rate x time)).

Therefore in this case the futures price for the S&P = 1000 * exp((5%-2%)*3/12) = 1007.53


Question No. 2

Which of the following statements is true in relation to an American style option:

1. Put-call parity applies to American options

II. An American put will never be cheaper than a European put

III. An American put option should never be exercised early for a non-dividend paying stock

IV. An American put option is always at least as valuable as its intrinsic value

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Correct Answer: C

The put-call parity applies to European options and does not hold for American options because the latter can be exercised at any time up to expiry. Therefore statement I is false.

An American put can not be cheaper than a European put is correct. This is because the American put will always be valued at at least its intrinsic value whereas a European value may be valued at less than intrinsic value if the exercise date is too far away in the future. This is because a long time interval will increase the chance that the intrinsic value may not be realized at expiry. Because the American put can be exercised anytime, it will always be at least equal to its intrinsic value because if it were to be cheaper than that, investors would immediately buy and exercise it, creating a riskless profit. Therefore statement II is correct, and statement IV is correct as well.

It may be optimal to exercise an American put (unlike an American call - note the difference!) before its expiry on a non dividend paying stock. This would be the case only when the put is deep in the money. If the option is really deep in the money (say, when the underlying's price is down to zero), then it may be worthwhile to cash the option out prior to expiry as the upside might be lost if time were to be allowed to pass. Additionally, any further upside in the case of a deep in the money option may be zero or very little, and the time value of money would also make immediate exercise prefereable. Therefore statement III is not correct.


Question No. 3

[According to the PRMIA study guide for Exam 1, Simple Exotics and Convertible Bonds have been excluded from the syllabus. You may choose to ignore this question. It appears here solely because the Handbook continues to have these chapters.]

Which of the following best describes a holder extendible option:

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Correct Answer: A

Choice 'a' correctly describes a holder extendible option. Choice 'd' describes a writer extendible option. The other choices are meaningless.


Question No. 4

[According to the PRMIA study guide for Exam 1, Simple Exotics and Convertible Bonds have been excluded from the syllabus. You may choose to ignore this question. It appears here solely because the Handbook continues to have these chapters.]

A company that uses physical commodities as an input into its manufacturing process wishes to use options to hedge against a rise in its raw material costs. Which of the following options would be the most cost effective to use?

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Correct Answer: D

Average rate options will be the most cost effective in this scenario as they are cheaper than vanilla options. Writer extendible options on commodities will be even more expensive, and correlation products are irrelevant to the manufacturing company's hedging needs.


Question No. 5

Credit risk in the case of a CDO (Collateralized Debt Obligation) is borne by:

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Correct Answer: B

Investors in CDOs bear credit risk. The SPV is merely a conduit that owns the underlying assets on which the sponsoring institution has bought protection. The investors have sold them this protection, and are on the hook for defaults or other credit events. The reference entity is relevant only to CDSs, not CDOs. Choice 'b' is the correct answer.


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