Most Recent PRMIA 8006 Exam Dumps

Notional principals are not exchanged at the start and the end of an FRA. In fact, if the notional principals were to be exchanged, it would increase credit risk and not decrease it by introducing settlement risk. Therefore Choice 'd' is incorrect.

All other choices correctly describe various aspects of an FRA.

In terms of beta, his exposure is $10m*0.7 = $7m. This exposure is long. In order order to neutralize his long exposure, he needs to have an equal an identical short position with the same beta as this long position (of course, in the short direction). We need to figure out how many contracts will have a beta equal to his held position. (The beta of a futures contract is slightly different from 1 when compared to spot, but in the absence of other information in the question it is always okay to assume that the beta of the futures contract is 1. Such precision does not matter because of other errors such as rounding etc that cannot be anyway done away with.)

He needs to short futures contracts on the index with $7m in notional value. The value of each contract is currently 1000*250 =$250,000. He therefore needs to short $7m/$250,000 = 28 contracts to become market or beta neutral.

The correct answer is Choice 'b', as this question is merely asking for the forward rate based on known spot rates. The forward rate applicable to the three month period commencing in 3 months time is given by [(1 + 6%*6/12)/(1 + 5%*3/12) - 1]*4 = 6.91%. Thus Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

Here is a step by step way to think about it: $1 invested now at 6% for 6 months grows to (1 + 6%*6/12)=1.03. At the same time, using the 3 month rate, $1 invested now at 5% for 3 months grows to (1 + 5%*3/12)=1.0125. Effectively, this means that the 1.0125 at the end of 3 months grow to 1.03 at the end of 6 months, implying the rate of interest during the 3 months from 3 to 6 months is (1.03/1.0125 - 1)*4 = 6.91%.

Price quotes for futures where one of the currencies is the US dollar follow the convention of using the number of US dollars one unit of the foreign currency can buy. (For JPY, 100 Yen is used.)

In the forward market, the same convention as is used in the spot market is used.

In the spot market, prices are expressed as the number of units of the foreign currency that 1 USD can buy, except for GBP, EUR, AUD and NZD where it is the other way round (ie, number of USDs that 1 of each of these currencies can buy).

The effectiveness of the hedge is solely determined by the correlation between the position being hedged, and the position being used as the hedge. A hedge can be perfect when correlation is 1, and will be less than perfect when it is anything other than 1. The effectiveness of the optimal hedge is given by the formula(1-2), whereis the correlation between the two. Therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer. Standard deviations affect the hedge ratio, not the effectiveness of the hedge.

(Note: In other texts, hedge effectiveness is explained to be measured by2, which is essentially the same as(1-2), both expressions being functions of. You can use either, being aware that one measures the variance explained, and the other is a measure of the unexplained variance.)