Most Recent PRMIA 8006 Exam Questions & Answers

Convenience yield is the benefit from having access to the commodity - and if the convenience yield is very high, for example in a market where manufacturers must never run out of a particular raw material, then these can switch the total cost of carry (which include interest and storage costs, less convenience yields) to being negative. This causes forward prices to become lower than spot prices, a phenomenon known as backwardation.

Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer. If convenience yields are less than other carrying costs, then backwardation will not happen. The sign of convenience yields does not matter, what matters is their relative magnitude when compared to the other costs of carry.

To understand this in an intuitive way, consider that forward prices are nothing but spot prices, plus interest, plus storage costs, less convenience yields. If interest and storage costs are less than the convenience yield, the market will be backwarded.

Overcollateralization is when the notes issued by the special purpose vehicle are less in value compared to the underlying pool of assets, thereby providing a buffer to absorb losses. Excess spread implies that the notes issued carry a lower interest rate than the interest rate received on the underlying assets. Cash reserves are reserves intended to take first hits when losses happen. All of these are valid credit enhancements for structured products. Additionally, 'insurance wraps' are also used as a credit enhancement. Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

'Margin requirements' do not mean anything in this context and are not a valid credit enhancement used for credit derivatives.

The security market line is generally shown graphically with returns on the y-axis and the asset's beta on the x-axis. The correct answer is Choice 'a'.

Note the difference between the SML and the CML (the capital markets line). The CML is the transformation line joining the risk free rate on the y-axis and the portfolio with the maximum Sharpe ratio on the efficient frontier, and expresses the relationship between risk and return.

Swaps rates are calculated such that the swap's value at inception is zero. Therefore statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect. OTC swaps are not standardized, in fact they are customized by the parties to suit their needs, which is why they are over-the-counter. Therefore statement III is incorrect. It is correct that interest rate and commodity swaps are the most traded, and statement IV is correct.

Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

Imagine a bond that provides just two cash flows: $100 in one year and $10 in 10 years. Imagine another bond that pays nothing now but $100 in 10 years. Assume that both have identical yields to maturity. Yet despite the identical YTM, the bonds are quite dissimilar. For the first bond, we face the risk that we would receive the bulk of the present value of the bond in an year's time, and while there is a small amount due in 10 years, the first payment may not find an equally attractive investment opportunity. Reinvestment risk refers to the risk that cash flows from a bond may not be investible at the yield to maturity for the bond. In such cases, bonds that have longer durations are preferable.

A coupon bearing bond with a coupon rate lower than our benchmark bond will carry a lower reinvestment risk as its cash flows are weighted more towards the end. An amortizing bond returns a part of the principle periodically, increasing reinvestment risk. A higher coupon bearing bond will have a higher reinvestment risk, and a zero coupon bond will have the least reinvestment risk.