Handsome Savings - Limited Time Offer 30% OFF - Ends In 0d 0h 0m 0s Coupon code: 50OFF
Welcome to QA4Exam
Logo

- Trusted Worldwide Questions & Answers

PRMIA 8010 Exam Actual Questions

The questions for 8010 were last updated on Oct 4, 2024.
  • Viewing page 1 out of 48 pages.
  • Viewing questions 1-5 out of 241 questions
Unlock Access to All 241 Questions & Answers
Question No. 1

A risk analyst attempting to model the tail of a loss distribution using EVT divides the available dataset into blocks of data, and picks the maximum of each block as a data point to consider.

Which approach is the risk analyst using?

Show Answer Hide Answer
Correct Answer: A

The risk analyst is using the block maxima approach. The data points that result will then be used to fit a GEV distribution.

Expected shortfall refers to the expected losses beyond a specified threshold. The peaks-over-threshold approach is an alternative approach to the block maxima approach, and involves considering exceedances above a threshold. Fourier transformation is not relevant in this context, and is a non-sensical option.


Question No. 2

The largest 10 losses over a 250 day observation period are as follows. Calculate the expected shortfall at a 98% confidence level:

20m

19m

19m

17m

16m

13m

11m

10m

9m

9m

Show Answer Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C

For a dataset with 250 observations, the top 2% of the losses will be the top 5 observations. Expected shortfall is the average of the losses beyond the VaR threshold. Therefore the correct answer is (20 + 19 + 19 + 17 + 16)/5 = 18.2m .

Note that Expected Shortfall is also called conditional VaR (cVaR), Expected Tail Loss and Tail average.


Question No. 3

Which of the following are considered properties of a 'coherent' risk measure:

1. Monotonicity

2. Homogeneity

3. Translation Invariance

4. Sub-additivity

Show Answer Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B

All of the properties described are the properties of a 'coherent' risk measure.

Monotonicity means that if a portfolio's future value is expected to be greater than that of another portfolio, its risk should be lower than that of the other portfolio. For example, if the expected return of an asset (or portfolio) is greater than that of another, the first asset must have a lower risk than the other. Another example: between two options if the first has a strike price lower than the second, then the first option will always have a lower risk if all other parameters are the same. VaR satisfies this property.

Homogeneity is easiest explained by an example: if you double the size of a portfolio, the risk doubles. The linear scaling property of a risk measure is called homogeneity. VaR satisfies this property.

Translation invariance means adding riskless assets to a portfolio reduces total risk. So if cash (which has zero standard deviation and zero correlation with other assets) is added to a portfolio, the risk goes down. A risk measure should satisfy this property, and VaR does.

Sub-additivity means that the total risk for a portfolio should be less than the sum of its parts. This is a property that VaR satisfies most of the time, but not always. As an example, VaR may not be sub-additive for portfolios that have assets with discontinuous payoffs close to the VaR cutoff quantile.


Question No. 4

Which of the following is not a limitation of the univariate Gaussian model to capture the codependence structure between risk factros used for VaR calculations?

Show Answer Hide Answer
Correct Answer: C

In the univariate Gaussian model, each risk factor is modeled separately independent of the others, and the dependence between the risk factors is captured by the covariance matrix (or its equivalent combination of the correlation matrix and the variance matrix). Risk factors could include interest rates of different tenors, different equity market levels etc.

While this is a simple enough model, it has a number of limitations.

First, it fails to fit to the empirical distributions of risk factors, notably their fat tails and skewness. Second, a single covariance matrix is insufficient to describe the fine codependence structure among risk factors as non-linear dependencies or tail correlations are not captured. Third, determining the covariance matrix becomes an extremely difficult task as the number of risk factors increases. The number of covariances increases by the square of the number of variables.

But an inability to capture linear relationships between the factors is not one of the limitations of the univariate Gaussian approach - in fact it is able to do that quite nicely with covariances.

A way to address these limitations is to consider joint distributions of the risk factors that capture the dynamic relationships between the risk factors, and that correlation is not a static number across an entire range of outcomes, but the risk factors can behave differently with each other at different intersection points.


Question No. 5

As the persistence parameter under EWMA is lowered, which of the following would be true:

Show Answer Hide Answer
Correct Answer: B

The persistence parameter, , is the coefficient of the prior day's variance in EWMA calculations. A higher value of the persistence parameter tends to 'persist' the prior value of variance for longer. Consider an extreme example - if the persistence parameter is equal to 1, the variance under EWMA will never change in response to returns.

1 - is the coefficient of recent market returns. As is lowered, 1 - increases, giving a greater weight to recent market returns or shocks. Therefore, as is lowered, the model will react faster to market shocks and give higher weights to recent returns, and at the same time reduce the weight on prior variance which will tend to persist for a shorter period.


Product Image

Unlock All Questions for PRMIA 8010 Exam

Full Exam Access, Actual Exam Questions, Validated Answers, Anytime Anywhere, No Download Limits, No Practice Limits

Get All 241 Questions & Answers